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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

10.06.2025 23:51

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

There's no rule.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

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Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

How can we worship Shri Krishna at home? Is it enough to install an idol, or are there other rituals that are mandatory?

You'll usually find your answer there.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

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Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.